A 62-year-old woman presents with a 5-year history of progressive, bilateral aching pain in her finger joints. The pain worsens at the end of the day and improves with rest. Physical examination reveals hard, bony nodules on her distal interphalangeal joints (Heberden nodes) and mild tenderness over the affected joints but no erythema or warmth. She is overweight and has no history of autoimmune disease or crystal arthropathy. Radiographs of her hands show joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophyte formation at the DIP joints. Which of the following best describes the underlying pathophysiology responsible for her findings?