A 58-year-old man with hypertension and hyperlipidemia is admitted for an acute anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He undergoes successful primary percutaneous coronary intervention with placement of a drug-eluting stent in the left anterior descending artery. On hospital day 2, he is pain free and hemodynamically stable. Which of the following long-term pharmacotherapy regimens is most appropriate for this patient?